KPSC-MOCK-TEST Mock Exam
KPSC Mock Test: Lecturer in Textile Technology Govt Polytechnics - Technical Education Polytechnics
KPSC Mock Test: Lecturer in Textile Technology Govt Polytechnics - Technical Education Polytechnics
Official Kerala Public Service Commission ONLINE Exam Question Paper & Answer Key. • Name of Post: Lecturer in Textile Technology Govt Polytechnics - Technical Education Polytechnics • Category Number: 238/2023 • Date of Test: 03/07/2024 • Answer Key: Final Answer Key Question Paper PDF: https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/2024-07/Lecturer%20in%20Textile%20Technology.pdf Answer Key PDF: https://www.keralapsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/2024-07/Final%20key%20Lr%20in%20Textile%20Technology%20.pdf
100 Questions
Progress: 0 / 100 Answered
1
A textile fibre with high tenacity will able to
2
Fibres with rough surfaces will
3
Elasticity refer to fibre's ability to
4
Which group of the fibres listed below decrease tenacity when wet?
5
Which one is correct among the following relative order of degree of crystallinity for the listed fibres?
6
bleaching of cotton is carried out
7
Cotton fabric dyed with a reactive dye show excellent colour-fastness to wash, but show poor colour fastness to
8
Arrange the following in order of decreasing breaking extension among Silk, Cotton, Jute and Wool
9
Which properties are decreased in textile fabrics that have subjected to durable-press or wash-n-wear finish?
10
Which factor do not affect the moisture regain of textile products.
11
Low dimensional stability and felting of wool is due to
12
Mercerisation of cotton fabric is carried out using - at the following conditions
13
The presence of metal ion during bleaching - causes
14
Optical brightening agents works in the following principle to improve whiteness of the fabric
15
Choose the correct set of given Melting point and Glass transition temperatures for any of the particular fibres :
16
Which type of feed yarn is preferred for draw-texturing to be done by false twist technique?
17
Arrange the following fibres according the decreasing order of tensile strength - Tick Correct Option of order amongst options 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below :
Fibre type
(a) Cotton
(b) Viscose
(c) Wool
(d) Nylon
18
Match the following Specific high performance textile fibres and their special end uses for designing and manufacturing specific Technical / functional textile products :
(m) Kevlar/Nomex Fibres
(n) Carbon Fibres
(o) Elastane/Spandex/Lycra Fibres
(p) Microdenier Polyester Fibres
End Uses:
(w) High Temperature Resistant Composites
(x) Factory Chimney's Fire Retardant Hot Smoke Filter Bag
(y) Dense woven light weight umbrella and rain-coat fabrics
(z) Stretch to Fit wear clothing with blends of other fibres
19
Match the following Dyeing Process for specific class of dye and suitable class of Dyeing auxiliaries to be used for that dyeing :
Dye Class and Dyeing process:
(m) Direct Dyeing of Cotton
(n) Reactive Dyeing of Cotton
(o) Acid Dyeing of Wool
(p) Disperse Dyeing of Polyester
Main Dyeing Auxiliaries:
(w) Formic Acid
(x) Dispersing agent
(y) Common Salt
(z) Sodium Hydroxide
20
Match the following Chemicals used for pigment printing of Textiles with the specific purpose of using that Chemical in preparing print paste:
(m) Acramin SLN emulsion
(n) DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate)
(o) Fixer-CCL (Melamin Formaldehyde Resin)
(p) Kerosine / White Oil
Purpose:
(w) To Prepare oil in water Thickener
(x) Binder to fix colour and all at designed part
(y) Catalyst to catalyse binder to fix to the Fibre
(z) Colour Fixation agent to improve rub-fastness
21
Match the following Chemical Finishes of textiles with the suitable class of Chemical agent to be used for that finish :
(m) Crease Resistant Finish
(n) Softening
(o) Fire Retardancy finish
(p) Water Repellant Finish
Chemical class:
(w) Poly-oxo ethylene
(x) Dimethyl Poly-Silioxane
(y) DMDHEU resin
(z) Phosphate + Urea
22
Transfer efficiency is defined as
23
The degrees of combing, 'half combing', which involves
24
The development of linear programming technique (LPT) is associated with
25
Determine the Intensity of opening of a beater having a production rate of 500 Kg/h and beater speed of 400 rpm. Number of teeth is approximately 23000
26
Doffing disposition typical arrangement between
27
Yarn fault Neppy yarn in the ring yarn states
28
Which process is considered as the heart of the spinning process?
29
The CV% of 3-ply yarn produced using a single yarn CV of 8.6% will be approximately ______
30
The diameters of the back, middle, and front rollers are 27 mm, 27 mm, and 30 mm, respectively. The break and main draft of the ring frame are 1.14 and 20, respectively. Find out the wave length of the fault in cm if the back roller of the ring frame is eccentric
31
The section of circumferential surface that does the combing is called
32
According to the ASTM (ASTM, 1994, 1995), "one or more fibres occurring in a tangled and unorganized mass" is defined as
33
Match the items in List I with those in List II :
(a) Yarn hairiness
(b) Drafting wave
(c) Roller slip
(d) Periodic variation
List II:
1. Floating fibre
2. Eccentric bottom roller
3. Spinning triangle
4. Low roller pressure
5. Immatured fibre
6. Short fibre
34
In term of degrees shore associated with
35
Determine the yarn realization percentage of 26 Ne carded yarn. Blow room waste : 5.4%; card waste : 4.5%; sweep waste : 1.4%; pneumafil and roller waste (ring frames) : 2%; and invisible loss : 0.5%
36
The achievable Carded yarn CSP for a given FQI of cotton under optimum twist factor is given by the expression, where C is the count spun
37
The breaking force of the material under test, divided by the linear density of the unstrained material, is called
38
Blending homogeneity could be expressed as
39
In the Murata air-jet spinning system
40
The majority of the seed particles are eliminated in
41
In ISO standards, approximately defining the traveller number as the mass in grams of
42
In case of drum-driven winder, the wind per double traverse with time
43
In stockport systems the reed count is expressed as
44
If the warp beam contains 550 ends and length of warp is 10500 yards and count is 21 Ne, what is the weight of warp in kilograms?
45
In case of 500 end double lift single cylinder Jacquard consists of
46
Find out the loom speed and weft insertion rate of loom if the average velocity of the shuttle is 40 Km/hr and the degree of crank shaft rotation available for the shuttle across the shed is 135°, shuttle length is 40 cm and the width of the warp in the reed is 1.5 mtrs
47
In case of double lift single Jacquard machine to control one warp end
48
The production rate of non woven is highest in the following technique
49
The weft density at selvedges is doubled in case of
50
The type of distribution curve which is symmetrical about a central value
51
Higher the stretch on the yarn during sizing process affects
52
The loop length in a flat bed knitting machine is controlled by
53
In shuttle less weaving machines in terms of weft insertion rate which of the following is correct
54
The process of sizing of warp yarns
55
The ratio of the length of crank to the length of connecting rod increases leads to
56
In air jet weaving the propelling force generated for insertion of weft is independent of the
57
In weft knitted fabrics of the same mass per unit area produced from the same yarns, the structure which will give the highest thickness is
58
To produce Non wovens using Hydro entanglement technique the types of fibre preferred is
59
The Jacquard has 400 hooks and designed to weave a fabric with 32 ends/cm. Then the size of the repeat would be
60
In high speed warping machine Quick response powerful brake is necessary "select the incorrect reason from the following" :
61
The lightest fibre amongest the following is
62
For bicycle frames made of composites which of the following fibre is highly preferred as reinforcement
63
The square set fabric with same rate of advancement in both directions gives the twill angle of _________
64
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to point draft in fabric design?
(i) Number of heald shafts used in about two times less than the warp repeat of the weave.
(ii) Larger strain on warp, leading to low loom efficiency.
(iii) Each end is drawn in separate heald up to half of the design, and reversed thereof.
(iv) Increased in figuring capacity.
65
The draft employed for production of check and stripe designs, in which the stripes have different weaves or their combinations is _________
66
Which of these factors gives more prominence to the twill lines in fabric with twill weave design?
(i) 3/1 twill design
(ii) 2/2 twill design
(iii) Z twill with Z twist yarn
(iv) Z twill with S twist yarn
67
Among these, which can be the repeat size and the draft of Brighton honey comb weave?
68
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to honey comb weave fabric?
69
The loom equipment necessary for manufacturing pique structures with wadded designs are _________
(i) Dobby loom with two warp beams
(ii) Loose reed beat up mechanism
(iii) Fast reed beat up mechanism
(iv) 2 X 2 drop box
70
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the wadding ends in bed ford cords?
71
Which of the following method is/are used to construct self stitched double cloths?
(i) Stitching from face to back
(ii) Stitching from back to face
(iii) Combination stitching
72
The fabrics constructed by reversing a small unit of the weave, in which the weaves are in sections and tend to oppose each other is _________
73
Garments can be classified as panty wear, cargo pant, thigh wear and stockings based on the ___________
74
According to the Eight head theory, _________ head is important for full length garments like trousers
75
All the patterns in the marker plan should be kept such that the grain line in the pattern should be parallel to the fabric selvedge for __________
76
_________ is the upper part of the feeding combination that holds/grips the fabric in place for the feeding action and stitch formation
77
__________ is normally engaged for accurate cutting of the finest shapes of garment components
78
As per ISO 4916 : 1991 system of seam classification, the class 2 seam refers to _________
79
According to the British standard, _________ is categorized as hand stitches
80
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to type of pressing of garments?
(i) Top pressing refers to the finishing operation which garment undergoes after being completely assembled.
(ii) Edge pressing before top-stitching comes in the category of top pressing.
(iii) Electric steam iron can be used for under pressing operation.
81
Which principle of fashion design refers to the contrasting colour such as black dress with white collar in the garment?
82
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to fashion design?
(i) Decorative designs are drawn by the beginners as well as boutique designers
(ii) Decorative design does not need a croque
(iii) Structural design is the fundamental component of design
(iv) Structural designs are drawn by the designers in the buying house
83
The method used for sampling the fibres in a yarn
84
When 2.5% span length of cotton sample was measured on a fibrograph, the result was 25 mm. This indicates.
85
The micronaire value of a cotton sample is dependent on both the fibre
86
Short fibre content referred to as Short Fibre Index (SFI) is derived by the instrument
87
In the tex count system, the relationship that results between twist, twist factor, and yarn count is
88
In classimat yarn faults classification A2 counts all faults shorter than 1 cm whose linear density is more than __________ of the average linear density of
89
In a zweigle yarn hairiness tester the number of hairs is counted simultaneously by a set of
90
The fabric weight per square meter is calculated using following the formula
91
Elmendorf tear tester pendulum is having the maximum potential energy
92
In ICI pilling box testing the pilling grade rating 4 gives sample descriptions as
93
The correction factor of divergence of light rays (K) for calculating the area of drape pattern is
94
The needle bearings are used in
95
The lowest temperature at which a lubricant gives off enough vapour and ignites for a moment when a small flame is brought near it
96
In a micrometer one division on the thimble represent
97
The knife edge approach of static balance is very effective for
98
The good value of illumination recommended for blow room implemented by all modern mills in India is
99
These store items needed for a spinning mill are reviewed according to a review calendar established by the store and purchase department
100
The vane anemometer gives the air flow measurement inside a cotton weaving mill in the speed range of
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