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All 100 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Human Anatomical wastes are put in ____________ colour coded container.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Yellow
    Human anatomical waste is categorized under yellow category for disposal as per biomedical waste management rules.
  2. 2.
    Example for a corrossive chemical is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Conc. Acids
    Concentrated acids are highly corrosive substances that can cause severe damage to living tissue and materials.
  3. 3.
    The working principle of colorimeter is based on ____________ law.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Beer – Lambert’s law
    Colorimetry is based on the Beer-Lambert law, which relates the attenuation of light to the properties of the material through which the light is traveling.
  4. 4.
    The temperature of incubator is usually kept at :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    37 °C
    Most medical incubators are set to 37 °C to mimic human body temperature for bacterial growth.
  5. 5.
    The RPM in centrifuge stands for ____________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Revolution per minute
    RPM stands for Revolutions Per Minute, indicating the speed of the centrifuge rotor.
  6. 6.
    Hazard warning symbols are :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Black pictures in yellow or orange background
    Hazard warning signs typically feature black symbols on a yellow or orange background to indicate caution.
  7. 7.
    Which one is correct in case of severe burns?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Apply ointment
    In case of severe burns, clothing stuck to the skin should not be removed as it may cause further injury.
  8. 8.
    Which one of the following is a powerful disinfectant?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Phenol
    Phenol (carbolic acid) is a potent disinfectant used in laboratory and clinical settings.
  9. 9.
    The burning of wastes at high temperature is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Incineration
    Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in waste materials at high temperatures.
  10. 10.
    New Glass wares should be soaked in ____________ before use.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Acids
    New glassware is often soaked in a weak acid solution to neutralize any residual alkali from the manufacturing process.
  11. 11.
    The ratio of potassium oxalate to ammonium oxalate in double oxalate mixture’s __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    2 : 3
    The standard Wintrobe's double oxalate mixture consists of potassium oxalate and ammonium oxalate in a 2:3 ratio.
  12. 12.
    Sites of capillary blood collection from the following is __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    Capillary blood can be collected from the finger tip, ear lobe, or the heel/great toe in infants.
  13. 13.
    Which anticoagulant is used as choice for CBC investigations?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    EDTA
    EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is the preferred anticoagulant for CBC as it preserves cell morphology best.
  14. 14.
    Blood react with Drabkins reagent to form a stable coloured product is __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Cyanmeth haemoglobin
    Drabkin's reagent converts hemoglobin to cyanmethaemoglobin for measurement.
  15. 15.
    __________ act as solvent in polychrome staining solution.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Methanol
    Methanol is used as a solvent and fixative in Romanowsky stains like Leishman's.
  16. 16.
    Haematocrit tube can hold __________ blood.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1 ml
    A standard Wintrobe haematocrit tube has a capacity of 1 ml.
  17. 17.
    __________ is used for blood smear staining.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    All listed stains are commonly used for staining blood smears.
  18. 18.
    An example of supravital staining solution :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Brilliant cresyl blue
    Brilliant cresyl blue is a classic supravital stain used for reticulocyte counting.
  19. 19.
    Which of these are the principles empl oyed for cell analysis by automated cell counters?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    Automated cell counters use various technologies including impedance, light scatter, and QBC analysis.
  20. 20.
    Blood group antigens present on :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    red cell membrane
    Blood group antigens are glycoproteins or glycolipids located on the surface of the red blood cell membrane.
  21. 21.
    Routinely used anticoagulant in blood bank :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    CPD
    CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose) is the standard anticoagulant used for blood collection in blood banks.
  22. 22.
    Bombay blood group lacks :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of these
    Individuals with the Bombay phenotype lack the H antigen on their red blood cells.
  23. 23.
    In infants __________ is the commonest site of venipuncture.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    anticubital vein
    The anticubital vein is the most common site for venipuncture in infants, similar to adults.
  24. 24.
    Which CSF pattern is most characteristic of acute bacterial meningitis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Neutrophilic Pleocytosis, decreased glucose and increased protein
    Bacterial meningitis typically presents with high neutrophils, low glucose, and high protein in CSF.
  25. 25.
    An increased amount of fecal fat is most directly associated with :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Steatorrhea
    Steatorrhea is the medical term for the presence of excess fat in feces.
  26. 26.
    The most appropriate specimen for routine microbiological examination of lower respiratory tract infection is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Deep-cough early morning sputum
    Early morning deep-cough sputum is the best specimen to ensure it originates from the lower respiratory tract.
  27. 27.
    A patient has a positive urine glucose test. Which statement is most accurate?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    It may occur when blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold
    Glycosuria occurs when blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for reabsorption.
  28. 28.
    A semen specimen remains markedly viscous after the expected liquefaction period. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Delayed liquefaction may interfer e with accurate assessment of sperm motility
    Hyperviscosity can trap sperm and interfere with the assessment of motility.
  29. 29.
    Which of the following enzymes are indicators of liver dysfunction?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    ALT, GGT, and ALP are all standard liver function tests used to detect liver damage.
  30. 30.
    Diazo reagent is : (i) Sulphanilic acid in Hydrochloric acid (ii) Sodium nitrite solution (iii) Sulphanilic acid in water (iv) Sulphanilic acid in Sulphuric acid
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (i) and (ii)
    The Diazo reagent for bilirubin estimation is prepared by mixing Sulphanilic acid in HCl (i) and Sodium nitrite (ii).
  31. 31.
    The enzyme Enolase is inhibited by :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Sodium fluoride
    Sodium fluoride is a well-known inhibitor of enolase, used in blood collection tubes to prevent glycolysis.
  32. 32.
    Reliable markers for Myocardial infarction except :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    ALT
    ALT is a liver enzyme and is not a specific marker for myocardial infarction.
  33. 33.
    Normal range of HbA1C :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    4 % – 5.6 %
    The normal reference range for HbA1c is typically between 4% and 5.6%.
  34. 34.
    Which of the following is not a tumour marker?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    ABG
    ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) is a test for respiratory and metabolic status, not a tumor marker.
  35. 35.
    Lipoprotein with fastest electrophoretic mobility :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    HDL
    HDL has the highest protein content and the fastest electrophoretic mobility among lipoproteins.
  36. 36.
    Which of the following is true regarding dry chemistry analysis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Reflectance Spectroscopy
    Dry chemistry analyzers typically use reflectance spectroscopy to measure color intensity on reagent slides.
  37. 37.
    Inulin is a polymer of :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Fructose
    Inulin is a fructan, a polymer consisting of fructose units.
  38. 38.
    Which of the following is used for the measurement of renal plasma flow?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Paraaminohippurate test
    Para-aminohippurate (PAH) clearance is the standard method for measuring effective renal plasma flow.
  39. 39.
    Example for bacteria that does not possess a cell wall is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Mycoplasma
    Mycoplasma species are unique among bacteria because they lack a cell wall.
  40. 40.
    About Oxidase test which of the following is true?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above are true
    All the listed statements regarding the oxidase test results for these bacterial groups are correct.
  41. 41.
    Culture method used for sensitivity testing are :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Lawn culture
    Lawn culture (or confluent growth) is the standard method used for antibiotic sensitivity testing (e.g., Kirby-Bauer method).
  42. 42.
    Counter stain used in AFB Staining is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Methylene Blue
    Methylene blue is commonly used as a counterstain in the Ziehl-Neelsen AFB staining procedure.
  43. 43.
    Agar is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All are true
    Agar is a polysaccharide derived from seaweed, is generally non-nutritive, and is used to solidify microbiological media.
  44. 44.
    Which of the following is not true for Thick smear?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Used only for Filaria not for Malaria
    Thick smears are widely used for the detection of both Malaria and Filaria parasites.
  45. 45.
    QBC in Laboratory is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Method of detection of malarial parasite
    QBC (Quantitative Buffy Coat) is a diagnostic technique used for the detection of malarial parasites.
  46. 46.
    Histokinet is an instrument :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Used for automated processing of Tissues
    A Histokinet (or tissue processor) is used for the automated processing of tissue samples.
  47. 47.
    Which of the following is not a fixative?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    5% Nitric Acid
    5% Nitric acid is typically used as a decalcifying agent, not as a primary tissue fixative.
  48. 48.
    FNAC is a :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Needle aspiration technique
    FNAC stands for Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology, which is a diagnostic procedure.
  49. 49.
    In H and E technique E stands for :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Eosin
    H and E stands for Haematoxylin and Eosin staining.
  50. 50.
    Which of the following is related with diagnostic cytology?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All the above
    Ayers spatula, PAP staining, and Coplin jars are all standard tools or techniques used in diagnostic cytology.
  51. 51.
    Find the number of significant figures in 0.2370 gcm−30.2370 \text{ gcm}^{-3} :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    4
    In 0.23700.2370, the leading zero is not significant, but the trailing zero after the decimal point is significant. Thus, there are 4 significant figures.
  52. 52.
    The Area under velocity-time graph is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Displacement
    The area under a velocity-time graph represents the displacement of the object.
  53. 53.
    The unit of the Power is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Nm/s
    Power is work done per unit time. Work is Force ×\times distance (Nm), so Power is Nms\frac{Nm}{s}.
  54. 54.
    The value of Acceleration due to Gravity at Height equal to half the radius of the earth is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    (4/9) g
    Using g′=g(RR+h)2g' = g \left( \frac{R}{R+h} \right)^2 with h=R2h = \frac{R}{2}, we get g′=g(R1.5R)2=g(23)2=49gg' = g \left( \frac{R}{1.5R} \right)^2 = g \left( \frac{2}{3} \right)^2 = \frac{4}{9}g.
  55. 55.
    The basic Principle of Hydraulic Lift is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Pascal’s Law
    Hydraulic lifts operate on the principle of Pascal's Law, which states that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every part of the fluid.
  56. 56.
    In a closed pipe the first, second and third harmonic frequencies are in the ratio :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1 : 3 : 5
    In a closed pipe, only odd harmonics are present, so the frequencies are in the ratio 1:3:5.
  57. 57.
    Which of the following thermodynamic process 0=ΔQ0=\Delta Q ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Adiabatic Process
    An adiabatic process is defined as a process where there is no heat exchange with the surroundings, so ΔQ=0\Delta Q = 0.
  58. 58.
    What is Gauss’s theorem in electrostatics?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    ϵ0ϕ=q\epsilon_0 \phi = q
    Gauss's law states that the total electric flux ϕ\phi through a closed surface is equal to the enclosed charge qq divided by the permittivity of free space ϵ0\epsilon_0, i.e., ϕ=qϵ0\phi = \frac{q}{\epsilon_0} or ϵ0ϕ=q\epsilon_0 \phi = q.
  59. 59.
    When dielectric medium is placed between plates of capacitor, the capacitance?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Increased
    Placing a dielectric between the plates of a capacitor increases its capacitance by a factor of the dielectric constant KK.
  60. 60.
    A Galvanometer converted into voltmeter by connecting :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    High resistance series
    A galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter by connecting a high resistance in series with it.
  61. 61.
    Which electromagnetic radiation is used in RADAR?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Microwave
    RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging) systems typically use microwaves for detection.
  62. 62.
    What is the relation between the focal length (f) and radius of curvature (R) of spherical mirrors?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    f=R/2f = R/2
    For spherical mirrors, the focal length is half the radius of curvature, f=R2f = \frac{R}{2}.
  63. 63.
    Which metal has the maximum work function related to photoelectric effect?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Platinum
    Among the given options, Platinum has the highest work function, making it harder to eject electrons compared to alkali metals like Caesium or Sodium.
  64. 64.
    Which property of light is proved by its transverse nature?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Polarisation
    Polarisation is a phenomenon that occurs only for transverse waves, thus proving the transverse nature of light.
  65. 65.
    Which device is used to convert AC into DC (Alternating Current into Direct Current)?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rectifier
    A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC), which periodically reverses direction, to direct current (DC), which flows in only one direction.
  66. 66.
    One mole of any substance contains :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23} particles
    One mole of any substance contains Avogadro's number of particles, which is 6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23}.
  67. 67.
    The maximum number of electrons that can occupy the K shell is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2
    The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by 2n22n^2. For the K shell (n=1n=1), the capacity is 2(1)2=22(1)^2 = 2.
  68. 68.
    Which particle was used in Rutherford’s scattering experiment?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Alpha particle
    Rutherford's gold foil experiment involved bombarding a thin gold foil with alpha particles.
  69. 69.
    A device that convert chemical energy into electrical energy is called :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Galvanic cell
    A galvanic (or voltaic) cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy through spontaneous redox reactions.
  70. 70.
    The scattering of light by colloidal particles is called :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Tyndall effect
    The Tyndall effect is the phenomenon where light is scattered by particles in a colloid or a very fine suspension.
  71. 71.
    Which element has the highest electronegativity?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Fluorine
    Fluorine is the most electronegative element in the periodic table.
  72. 72.
    The chemical formula of heavy water :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    D2OD_2O
    Heavy water is deuterium oxide, represented by the chemical formula D2OD_2O.
  73. 73.
    Which allotrope of carbon is used as a lubricant?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Graphite
    Graphite is used as a dry lubricant because of its layered structure, which allows the layers to slide over each other easily.
  74. 74.
    The industrial manufacture of sulfuric acid is carried out by the :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Contact process
    The Contact process is the current industrial method used to produce sulfuric acid.
  75. 75.
    Which d block element is used in the manufacture of dry cell?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Zinc
    Zinc is used as the anode container in a standard dry cell (Leclanché cell).
  76. 76.
    Saccharin is used as a __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Artificial sweetener
    Saccharin is a well-known artificial sweetener that is much sweeter than sucrose.
  77. 77.
    Which of the following base is not present in D.N.A.?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Uracil
    DNA contains Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Thymine. Uracil is found in RNA instead of Thymine.
  78. 78.
    Glycerol is purified by which method?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Distillation under reduced pressure
    Glycerol decomposes at its boiling point, so it is purified by distillation under reduced pressure (vacuum distillation).
  79. 79.
    Luca’s test is used for the identification of __________
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Alcohols
    Lucas test is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols.
  80. 80.
    Which is the water soluble vitamin?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Vitamin B
    Vitamin B complex and Vitamin C are water-soluble, while Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble.
  81. 81.
    Short interval between Meiosis I and Meiosis II :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Interkinesis
    Interkinesis is the short resting phase between Meiosis I and Meiosis II.
  82. 82.
    Which statement is incorrect regarding Mesosome?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Present both in Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
    Mesosomes are characteristic features of prokaryotic cells, not eukaryotic cells.
  83. 83.
    Which of the following best defines Apomixis?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Formation of seed without fertilization
    Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, where seeds are formed without fertilization.
  84. 84.
    Which of the following statements are true? (i) Rice is pollinated by wind (ii) Water lily is pollinated by water (iii) Vallisneria is pollinated by water
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    only (i) and (iii)
    Rice is wind-pollinated (anemophilous). Vallisneria is water-pollinated (hydrophilous). Water lily is typically insect-pollinated, not water-pollinated.
  85. 85.
    Scientific rearing of Honey bee :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Apiculture
    Apiculture is the scientific rearing of honey bees.
  86. 86.
    Thermostable ‘Taq polymerase’ enzyme used in PCR is isolated from :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Thermus aquaticus
    Taq polymerase is derived from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
  87. 87.
    The first Transgenic cow that produces human protein, alpha - lactalbumin enriched milk is :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Rosie
    Rosie was the first transgenic cow produced to yield human protein-enriched milk.
  88. 88.
    The first clinical Gene therapy was done in 1990, for a child suffering from :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    ADA deficiency
    The first gene therapy was performed on a four-year-old girl, Ashanti DeSilva, for Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
  89. 89.
    The process by which water-soluble inorganic nutrients present in the detritus go down into the soil horizon and turn into unavailable salts :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Leaching
    Leaching is the process where water-soluble nutrients move down into the soil horizons and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
  90. 90.
    The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    dNdt=rN(K−NK)\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right)
    The logistic growth equation is dNdt=rN(K−NK)\frac{dN}{dt} = rN \left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right), where K is carrying capacity.
  91. 91.
    Which part of mammalian alimentary canal does not secrete any enzymes?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Oesophagus
    The oesophagus is a muscular tube that transports food to the stomach and does not secrete digestive enzymes.
  92. 92.
    The second heart sound (dubb) is associated with the closure of :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Semilunar valves
    The second heart sound (dub) is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary valves).
  93. 93.
    __________ is a special sensitive region in kidney formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Juxta glomerular apparatus
    The Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized structure formed by the distal convoluted tubule and the glomerular afferent arteriole.
  94. 94.
    Read the given statements and select the correct option : Statement A : Repeated activation of muscles can lead to fatigue. Statement B : Lactic acid accumulation by aerobic breakdown of glycogen causes muscle fatigue
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
    Muscle fatigue is caused by the accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic (not aerobic) breakdown of glycogen.
  95. 95.
    Which of the following cells are associated with the identification of colours in bright light?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Cone cells
    Cone cells are photoreceptor cells in the retina responsible for color vision and function best in bright light.
  96. 96.
    Which amino acid is substituted in sickle cell anaemia?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Glutamic acid by valine in β-chain
    Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation in the β\beta-globin chain where glutamic acid is replaced by valine.
  97. 97.
    During transcription the site of DNA molecule at which RNA polymerase binds is called __________.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Promoter
    The promoter is the DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.
  98. 98.
    Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Contact inhibition
    Normal cells show contact inhibition, which prevents them from growing uncontrollably; cancer cells lose this property.
  99. 99.
    Which of the following features is not present in Phylum Arthropoda?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Parapodia
    Parapodia are characteristic of Phylum Annelida (e.g., Nereis), not Arthropoda.
  100. 100.
    Excretory structures present in the members of Phylum Platyhelminthes :
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Nephridia
    Flame cells (protonephridia) are the specialized excretory cells found in Platyhelminthes.

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