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84 questions with answersProvisional key(M/T/K)

SPECIAL BRANCH ASSISTANT - S B C I D - Kerala Police Service question paper 2026

Date of test
28-10-2026
Question paper code
093/2026
Category No.
017/2025
Questions
84
Answer key
Provisional Answer Key
Exam mode
OMR (pen and paper)

Provisional key. Kerala PSC can change answers after reviewing complaints; the final key decides the marks.

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Source: Kerala PSC (keralapsc.gov.in) · official document· Last updated 6 Nov 2026· How we check content· ⚑ Report a problem

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All 84 questions with answers

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  1. 1.
    Consider the following statements regarding administrative reforms of Marthanda Varma in Travancore. 1. Marthanda Varma introduced the annual budget called the ‘Pativukanakku’. 2. The title of Chempaka Raman was conferred upon the officials for their meritorious service. 3. Marthanda Varma built the famous Nadum Kotta on the borders of Thiruvithamkur to prevent the ensuring attack of the Mysoreans. 4. Mavelikara was made the headquarters of the commercial department. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1, 2 and 4
    Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct regarding the administrative reforms of Marthanda Varma.
    Report a mistake
  2. 2.
    Match list – I with list – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below. List – I | List – II 1. Storming of the Bastille prison | a. June, 1789 2. Oath of the Tennis Court | b. July, 1789 3. The declaration of the Rights of man, and of the Citizen | c. January, 1793 4. Execution of Louis XVI | d. August, 1789
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
    The correct chronological matching is: Storming of Bastille (July 1789), Tennis Court Oath (June 1789), Declaration of Rights (August 1789), Execution of Louis XVI (January 1793).
    Report a mistake
  3. 3.
    Arrange the following events regarding Aikya Kerala movement as per its chronological order. a. Aikya Kerala Conference held at Thrissur b. Payyannur Political Conference c. Travancore Cochin Integration d. Formation of Kerala State
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    b, a, c, d
    The chronological order is Payyannur Political Conference (1928), Aikya Kerala Conference (1947), Travancore-Cochin Integration (1949), and Formation of Kerala State (1956).
    Report a mistake
  4. 4.
    Match list – I with list – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below. List – I (Congress Presidents) | List – II (Congress session) 1. C. Sankaran Nair | a. Amaravati 2. C. Vijayaraghavachariar | b. Bombay 3. Gopala Krishna Gokhale | c. Banares 4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad | d. Nagpur
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
    C. Sankaran Nair (Amaravati), C. Vijayaraghavachariar (Nagpur), G.K. Gokhale (Banares), Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Bombay).
    Report a mistake
  5. 5.
    Match list – I with list – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below. List – I (News Papers) | List – II (Founders) 1. The Hindu | a. G. Subramaniya Iyer 2. Amrita Bazar Patrika | b. Sisir Kumar Ghosh 3. Bombay Chronicle | c. Annie Besant 4. New India | d. Pherozeshah Mehta
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
    The Hindu (G. Subramaniya Iyer), Amrita Bazar Patrika (Sisir Kumar Ghosh), Bombay Chronicle (Pherozeshah Mehta), New India (Annie Besant).
    Report a mistake
  6. 6.
    Consider the following statements regarding the 18th BRICS Summit. 1. The theme of summit is strengthening Global South cooperation for a more inclusive and sustainable governance. 2. The summit was held at Bharat mandapam in New delhi. 3. The BRICS members unanimously adopted the New delhi declaration. 4. Brazil President luiz Inacio lula da Silva represented Brazil in the summit. Which of the statements given above are correct?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    2 and 3
    Statements 1 and 3 are correct regarding the 18th BRICS summit context.
    Report a mistake
  7. 7.
    Which layer of the atmosphere is generally absent or disappears during the night due to the absence of solar radiation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Ionosphere
    The Ionosphere is dependent on solar radiation for ionization, hence it changes significantly or disappears at night.
    Report a mistake
  8. 8.
    Which of the following statements regarding a recumbent fold is/are correct? i. The axial plane of a recumbent fold is approximately horizontal. ii. The limbs of a recumbent fold are commonly nearly parallel to the axial plane. iii. Recumbent folds are generally associated with intense compressional deformation. iv. A recumbent fold necessarily has a vertical axial plane.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    i, ii and iii only
    A recumbent fold has a horizontal axial plane, making statement iv incorrect.
    Report a mistake
  9. 9.
    Which of the following is/are a non-topological vector data model in GIS? i. SPAGHETTI ii. GBF/dImE iii. TIGER iv. POlyVERT
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    i only
    Spaghetti and GBF/dImE are classic examples of non-topological vector data models.
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  10. 10.
    Which of the following is/are an advantage of along-track sensors in remote sensing? i. They provide a longer dwell time over each ground target. ii. They generally offer high radiometric resolution and improved geometric accuracy. iii. They eliminate the need for calibration of individual detectors. iv. They have higher reliability and longer life expectancy.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    i, ii and iv only
    Along-track sensors (push-broom) provide better geometric accuracy and dwell time, but individual detector calibration is often required.
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  11. 11.
    Which of the following statements best describes the uniqueness of urbanisation in Kerala? i. Emergence of an intensive rural-urban interaction zone. ii. Increasing coexistence between rural and urban functions. iii. Absence of a single primate city. iv. High Spatial diffusion of small cities.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    All of the above
    Kerala's urbanization is characterized by a dispersed pattern, lack of a primate city, and high rural-urban integration.
    Report a mistake
  12. 12.
    Which of the following highlights the primary orbital significance of ISRO’s EOS-05 satellite launched recently?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    India’s first Earth observation satellite operating from a high-altitude Geosynchronous Orbit.
    EOS-05 is noted for its operation in a high-altitude Geosynchronous Orbit.
    Report a mistake
  13. 13.
    The Indian Critical Minerals Identification process tries to address which of the following core objectives? i. Supporting economic growth, competitiveness and job creation. ii. Geological mapping by the Geological Survey of India. iii. manufacturing and advanced technology production. iv. Enhancing global security and partnerships with allies.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Only i and iv
    The critical minerals strategy focuses on economic growth, manufacturing, and technology production.
    Report a mistake
  14. 14.
    ‘‘Sweet Revolution’’ in India is related to the overall promotion and development of
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Beekeeping
    The Sweet Revolution is the government's initiative to promote beekeeping (apiculture).
    Report a mistake
  15. 15.
    The following table gives the data about the active GST taxpayers in different States. | Active GST Taxpayers | States | | :--- | :--- | | 4,49,593 | Kerala | | 7,20,595 | Bihar | | 11,23,561 | Karnataka | | 9,22,127 | Delhi | | 4,59,107 | Andhra Pradesh | What is the approximate percentage contribution of Delhi’s active GST taxpayers compared to the total active GST taxpayers across all five States combined?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    25.1%
    Total = 4,49,593 + 7,20,595 + 11,23,561 + 9,22,127 + 4,59,107 = 36,74,983. Delhi's share = (9,22,127 / 36,74,983) * 100 ≈ 25.09%. Given the options, 23.5% is the closest approximation.
    Report a mistake
  16. 16.
    NITI TARA is a knowledge product system under the
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    State Support Mission
    NITI TARA is a knowledge management system developed for the Aspirational Blocks Programme.
    Report a mistake
  17. 17.
    Consider the following statements regarding the Five year Plans of India. i. The first plan was based on Harrod-Domar Model. ii. The fifth plan proposed to achieve removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance. iii. The seventh plan focussed on growth with social justice and equality. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Only i and ii
    All three statements are correct regarding the respective Five Year Plans of India.
    Report a mistake
  18. 18.
    Which Country is hosting the G20 leaders’ Summit in December 2026?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The United States of America
    Brazil is the host country for the G20 summit in 2026.
    Report a mistake
  19. 19.
    Who proposed the Objectives Resolution on 13th December 1946?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Jawaharlal Nehru
    Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946.
    Report a mistake
  20. 20.
    Which Constitutional Amendments are primarily responsible for the establishment of local Self-government Institutions (LSGIs) in Kerala?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    73rd and 74th Amendments
    The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts provided the constitutional status to Panchayati Raj and Urban Local Bodies respectively.
    Report a mistake
  21. 21.
    Which ideal is not mentioned in the Preamble? i. Equality ii. Liberty iii. Justice iv. Adult Suffrage
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    iv only
    The Preamble mentions Justice, Liberty, and Equality, but does not explicitly mention Adult Suffrage.
    Report a mistake
  22. 22.
    Which writ is issued to inquire into the legality of a person’s detention?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Habeas Corpus
    Habeas Corpus is issued to produce a detained person before the court to determine the legality of detention.
    Report a mistake
  23. 23.
    Who among the following is the Chairperson of the GST Council?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Union Finance Minister
    The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council.
    Report a mistake
  24. 24.
    Which Article declares that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Article 37
    Article 37 states that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court.
    Report a mistake
  25. 25.
    The State Human Rights Commission, constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, inquires into complaints of violation of human rights by public servants and may recommend that the concerned government or authority grant compensation to the victim or initiate proceedings against the persons responsible. Which of the following best describes the legal character of such a recommendation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    It is a recommendation, and while it carries persuasive and moral authority, it does not, by itself, bind the government or authority, which is required only to inform the Commission of the action taken on it within the prescribed period.
    Recommendations of the Human Rights Commission are advisory in nature and not legally binding on the government.
    Report a mistake
  26. 26.
    Kerala is frequently cited in development studies as an example of achieving high social development indicators such as literacy, life expectancy, and infant mortality reduction at levels comparable to many developed economies, despite a per-capita income historically closer to that of other developing regions. Which of the following best explains why this pattern is significant for the study of governance and public administration?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    It illustrates that sustained public investment in health, education, and social welfare delivery can achieve substantial human development outcomes even without a correspondingly high level of industrial or per-capita income growth.
    Kerala's model demonstrates that public policy and investment can drive human development independent of high per-capita income.
    Report a mistake
  27. 27.
    In 2015, the Planning Commission of India was replaced at the Union level by NITI Aayog, a policy think-tank without the power to allocate plan funds to States. In this changed context, which of the following best describes the continuing role of a body such as the Kerala State Planning Board?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    The Kerala State Planning Board continues to function as a State-level advisory body assisting in the formulation of the State’s development plans and allocation of the State’s own plan outlay, independent of the Union Planning Commission’s abolition.
    State Planning Boards continue to function as advisory bodies for state-level planning regardless of the changes at the central level.
    Report a mistake
  28. 28.
    Kerala, like several other States, has instituted a single-window clearance mechanism for industrial and investment approvals. Which of the following best explains the primary administrative rationale for adopting a single-window mechanism, as opposed to requiring an investor to approach each regulatory department separately?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    To reduce procedural delay and duplication by coordinating and time-bound processing of the multiple statutory approvals required from different departments through one integrated interface, without removing the underlying departmental scrutiny.
    Single-window systems aim to streamline processes and reduce delays while maintaining necessary regulatory oversight.
    Report a mistake
  29. 29.
    Integrated Watershed management Programmes in India, including those implemented through Panchayati Raj Institutions in Kerala, are generally designed around a ‘ridge-to-valley’ treatment sequence combined with participatory planning involving the local community through the Gram Sabha. Which of the following best explains the administrative rationale for beginning treatment works at the ridge (upper reaches) rather than at the valley (lower reaches) of a watershed?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Because treating soil and water conservation measures first at the higher elevations reduces the velocity of run-off and soil erosion flowing downward, thereby protecting the conservation works subsequently undertaken in the lower reaches.
    Ridge-to-valley treatment is a scientific approach to manage water flow and prevent erosion from the source downwards.
    Report a mistake
  30. 30.
    Between 2019 and 2020, Parliament consolidated 29 existing Central labour laws into four labour Codes (on Wages ; Industrial Relations ; Social Security ; and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions). Which of the following best explains the primary administrative rationale offered for this consolidation?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    To simplify and harmonize overlapping and sometimes inconsistent definitions and compliance requirements spread across a large number of separate enactments, thereby easing compliance while consolidating labour rights under fewer, more coherent statutes.
    The consolidation of labour laws was primarily aimed at simplifying compliance and harmonizing various definitions across multiple acts.
    Report a mistake
  31. 31.
    Non-contributory old-age and welfare pensions disbursed by the State, such as those administered through Kerala’s social security pension schemes, are best classified administratively as which of the following, and on which Constitutional basis are such measures generally justified?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    They are a form of social assistance, funded from general State revenues without any contribution from the beneficiary, and are generally justified with reference to the directive Principles of State Policy, such as Article 41.
    Social security pensions are social assistance programs funded by the state, rooted in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 41).
    Report a mistake
  32. 32.
    Under the maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, a maintenance Tribunal is empowered to order a person’s children or relatives to pay a monthly allowance for the maintenance of a senior citizen or parent unable to maintain themselves. Which of the following best describes the nature of the proceedings before such a Tribunal?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    The proceedings are designed to be summary in nature, enabling a relatively simple and speedy inquiry and disposal, so that an elderly applicant is not subjected to the delays of ordinary civil litigation.
    The Act provides for summary proceedings to ensure speedy justice for senior citizens, avoiding the complexities of regular civil court procedures.
    Report a mistake
  33. 33.
    E-governance initiatives are commonly classified according to the relationship between the parties involved in service delivery, such as Government-to-Citizen (G2C), Government-to-Government (G2G), Government-to-Business (G2B), and Government-to-Employee (G2E). An online portal through which a State’s Treasury department electronically transfers pension and salary-related data directly to the Accountant General’s office for audit would best be classified under which category?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Government-to-Employee (G2E)
    The interaction between two government departments (Treasury and Accountant General) is classified as G2G (Government-to-Government).
    Report a mistake
  34. 34.
    A State Government department has, for several years, consistently followed a published policy of granting a specific category of licence renewal automatically upon submission of a renewal application, without further scrutiny, provided the applicant has not been found in default. It now proposes to deviate from this consistent practice for one specific applicant, without prior notice, even though that applicant has not been found in default. Which principle of administrative law is most directly relevant to examining the validity of this proposed deviation ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    The doctrine of legitimate expectation, under which a person may be entitled to a fair hearing or a reasonable justification before a public authority departs, to that person’s detriment, from an established and consistent practice or representation.
    The doctrine of legitimate expectation protects individuals when a public authority departs from an established practice without justification.
    Report a mistake
  35. 35.
    According to the Sustainable development Report 2026 (UN Sustainable development Solutions Network), India’s overall SdG Index score showed its fastest improvement in a decade, moving up in the global ranking. Which of the following best reflects a further finding of the same report regarding India’s progress ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    India’s improvement in its overall score has occurred despite continuing to face its most critical challenges on specific goals such as zero Hunger, reflecting uneven progress across different goals.
    The report highlights that progress is uneven, with significant challenges remaining in specific areas despite overall improvement.
    Report a mistake
  36. 36.
    The monetary Policy Committee (mPC) of the Reserve Bank of India, which kept the policy repo rate unchanged through most of 2026 while maintaining a ‘neutral’ stance, is structured as a six-member body comprising RBI officials and external members nominated by the Government of India. Which of the following best explains the institutional rationale for including external, non-RBI members on the mPC ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    To bring in independent expertise and diverse perspectives into monetary policy decisions, rather than leaving interest-rate decisions to be determined solely by the internal view of the Central Bank.
    The inclusion of external members is intended to bring independent expertise and diverse perspectives to the decision-making process.
    Report a mistake
  37. 37.
    Which of the following is the most essential nutrient for women during their initial stages of pregnancy to prevent birth defect ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Folic acid
    Folic acid is crucial during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects.
    Report a mistake
  38. 38.
    When organic matter present in sanitary land fills decomposes it will generate
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    methane
    Anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in landfills produces methane gas.
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  39. 39.
    The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in community is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Tuberculin test
    The Tuberculin test (Mantoux test) is commonly used for screening and assessing prevalence in a community.
    Report a mistake
  40. 40.
    Which of the following disease caused by plasmodium parasite ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    malaria
    Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium.
    Report a mistake
  41. 41.
    Which is the most appropriate site for assessing a pulse during an emergency in an adult ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Carotid artery
    The carotid artery is the preferred site for checking a pulse in an emergency as it is a large central artery.
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  42. 42.
    The hormone primarily responsible for regulating blood calcium levels is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Parathyroid hormone
    Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the primary regulator of calcium homeostasis in the blood.
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  43. 43.
    Which organization coordinates organ and tissue transplantation activities in Kerala ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    K-SOTTO
    K-SOTTO (Kerala State Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization) coordinates these activities.
    Report a mistake
  44. 44.
    India won its first medal at the 2026 Asian Games in which sports ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Shooting
    India's first medal at the 2026 Asian Games was in Shooting.
    Report a mistake
  45. 45.
    A screw gauge has a pitch of 1 mm. When the screw is rotated through 6 complete rotations, the spindle moves forward by 6 mm. If the circular scale has 100 equal divisions, what is the least count of the screw gauge ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    0.01 mm
    Least count = PitchNumber of divisions on circular scale=1 mm100=0.01 mm\frac{\text{Pitch}}{\text{Number of divisions on circular scale}} = \frac{1 \text{ mm}}{100} = 0.01 \text{ mm}.
    Report a mistake
  46. 46.
    A monochromatic light wave of frequency 5×1014 Hz5 \times 10^{14} \text{ Hz} enters a transparent medium of refractive index 1.5 from vacuum. Which of the following statements is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Its frequency remains 5.0×1014 Hz5.0 \times 10^{14} \text{ Hz} and its wavelength becomes 4.0×10−7 m4.0 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}
    Frequency remains constant when light enters a new medium. Wavelength λ′=λn=cf⋅n=3×1085×1014×1.5=4.0×10−7 m\lambda' = \frac{\lambda}{n} = \frac{c}{f \cdot n} = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{5 \times 10^{14} \times 1.5} = 4.0 \times 10^{-7} \text{ m}.
    Report a mistake
  47. 47.
    If the speed of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Four times
    Kinetic energy K=12mv2K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2. If vv becomes 2v2v, KK becomes 4K4K.
    Report a mistake
  48. 48.
    In 2026, India held the BRICS Chairship and outlined its priorities for the grouping. What was the official theme of India’s BRICS Chairship ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
    The official theme for India's 2026 BRICS Chairship was 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
    Report a mistake
  49. 49.
    The ability of aqua regia to dissolve gold is mainly due to
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Oxidation by nitric acid and complex formation by chloride ions
    Aqua regia dissolves gold due to the oxidation by nitric acid and the formation of complex ions with chloride ions.
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  50. 50.
    If the pH of nitric acid changes from 5 to 3, then its H+H^+ concentration
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Increases 100 times
    pH change of 2 units (5−3=25-3=2) corresponds to a 102=10010^2 = 100 times increase in H+H^+ concentration.
    Report a mistake
  51. 51.
    A mixture contains iron filings and sulphur powder. Which sequence can be used to separate the components ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Without heating using magnetic separation
    Iron is magnetic and can be separated from sulphur using a magnet without heating.
    Report a mistake
  52. 52.
    Interest in methane pyrolysis is growing since it can result in
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Hydrogen and solid carbon
    Methane pyrolysis (CH4→C+2H2CH_4 \rightarrow C + 2H_2) produces hydrogen and solid carbon without emitting CO2CO_2.
    Report a mistake
  53. 53.
    What does Kerala Folklore Academy stand for ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    All of the above
    Kerala Folklore Academy is dedicated to promoting, preserving, and documenting traditional folk arts and artists.
    Report a mistake
  54. 54.
    Which of the following statements about the literary work Nalini are correct ? I. Nalini is a short narrative poem (Khandakavya) written by Kumaran Asan. II. Nalini is also known by another name, Oru Sneham (‘‘A love’’). III. Nalini is the first work of Kumaran Asan. IV. The foreword (introduction) for Nalini was written by A. R. Raja Raja Varma.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Only I, II and IV
    Nalini is Kumaran Asan's first work, a Khandakavya, also known as 'Oru Sneham', and the introduction was written by A. R. Raja Raja Varma.
    Report a mistake
  55. 55.
    Which art form of Kerala, dynamic for its rhythmic footwork and theatrical battle scenes, was introduced during the Portuguese era in the coastal regions ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Chavittu Nadakam
    Chavittu Nadakam is a classical art form of Kerala that originated during the Portuguese period.
    Report a mistake
  56. 56.
    Under the mission Samudra framework in Kerala, which strategic sector is being integrated with urban development and logistics ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Port-led industrialisation and maritime transport
    Mission Samudra focuses on port-led industrialization and maritime transport infrastructure.
    Report a mistake
  57. 57.
    Who is the first Indian to win olympic gold in athletics ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Neeraj Chopra
    Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal in Javelin throw at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
    Report a mistake
  58. 58.
    Kho Kho during Game consist in the team ____________ Players.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    9
    A Kho Kho team consists of 9 players on the field.
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  59. 59.
    ‘‘Tee’’ is the term related to which sports and games ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Golf
    A 'Tee' is a small peg used in the game of Golf to hold the ball.
    Report a mistake
  60. 60.
    Consider the following statements. statement I : RAm is a volatile memory. statement II : ROm generally retains its contents when power is switched off. Which of the following is correct ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true
    RAM is volatile (loses data when power is off), while ROM is non-volatile (retains data).
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  61. 61.
    Which of the following is an example of an output operation ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    displaying a calculated result on the monitor
    Displaying information on a monitor is an output operation.
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  62. 62.
    An office has computers connected within the same building to share printers and files. Which type of network is most appropriate ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    lAN
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is used for connecting devices within a limited area like a building.
    Report a mistake
  63. 63.
    What does E20 fuel refer to ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Fuel containing 20% ethanol and 80% petrol by volume
    E20 fuel is a blend of 20% ethanol and 80% gasoline (petrol).
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  64. 64.
    In its August 2026 policy meeting, the Reserve Bank of India kept the policy repo rate unchanged at
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    5.25%
    The repo rate was maintained at 6.00% in the specified policy meeting.
    Report a mistake
  65. 65.
    Under Section 2(28) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is included within the meaning of “public servant” ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Persons performing duties of a public nature, including government officers, judges, arbitrators and members of public commissions
    The definition of public servant under the BNS includes various individuals performing public duties.
    Report a mistake
  66. 66.
    Who is authorized to issue the Certificate of Identity to a transgender person under Section 6 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    district magistrate
    Under the Transgender Persons Act, the District Magistrate is the authority to issue the Certificate of Identity.
    Report a mistake
  67. 67.
    Punishment for sexual harassment under POCSO Act, 2012 is provided under which Section ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Section 12
    Section 12 of the POCSO Act deals with the punishment for sexual harassment.
    Report a mistake
  68. 68.
    Section 14 of the lokpal and lokayuktas Act, 2013 primarily deals with
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: D —
    Jurisdiction of the lokpal in respect of complaints against certain public functionaries
    Section 14 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act defines the jurisdiction of the Lokpal.
    Report a mistake
  69. 69.
    Who is the Ninth Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    Justice V. Ramasubramanian
    Justice V. Ramasubramanian is the ninth chairperson of the NHRC.
    Report a mistake
  70. 70.
    The Central Information Commission under RTI Act, 2005 is enacted as per which Section ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    Section 12
    Section 12 of the RTI Act, 2005 provides for the constitution of the Central Information Commission.
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  71. 71.
    In the following question, four numbers are given, out of which three are alike in some manner while one is different. Choose the one which is different from the rest three.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    175
    150, 200, and 250 are divisible by 25 and 50, whereas 175 is not divisible by 50.
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  72. 72.
    The following question consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words. Triangle : Hexagon
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rectangle : Octagon
    A triangle has 3 sides and a hexagon has 6 sides (double). A rectangle has 4 sides and an octagon has 8 sides (double).
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  73. 73.
    Given below is a sequence of groups of letters and numbers with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives. Q1F, S2E, U6d, W21C, ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    y88B
    The pattern follows: Letters Q, S, U, W (+2), Numbers 1, 2, 6, 21 (x1+1, x2+2, x3+3, x4+4), Letters F, E, D, C (-1). Next is Y, 88, B.
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  74. 74.
    Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.” How is that man related to the woman ?
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    Answer: D —
    Husband
    The only daughter of the woman's father is the woman herself. Since the man's wife is the woman, the man is her husband.
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  75. 75.
    Two ladies and two men are playing cards and are seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which directions are the ladies facing ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    North and West
    If a man faces South, the person opposite (North) must be a lady. Since no lady faces East, the other lady must face West.
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  76. 76.
    In a class, there are 24 students. The average age of 24 students and the class teacher is 16 years. If the class teacher’s age is excluded, the average age reduces by 1 year. What is the age of the class teacher ?
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    40 years
    Total age = 25×16=40025 \times 16 = 400. Age without teacher = 24×15=36024 \times 15 = 360. Teacher's age = 400−360=40400 - 360 = 40.
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  77. 77.
    A cloth dealer professes to sell cotton at cost price, but uses a meter having a length of 80 cm only and charges for the meter. Find his gain percent.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    25%
    Gain % = ErrorTrueValue−Error×100=2080×100=25%\frac{Error}{True Value - Error} \times 100 = \frac{20}{80} \times 100 = 25\%.
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  78. 78.
    If the difference between the Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 30.50. Find the sum.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Rs. 4,000
    Difference for 3 years = P×(r100)2×(3+r100)P \times (\frac{r}{100})^2 \times (3 + \frac{r}{100}). 30.50=P×(0.05)2×3.0530.50 = P \times (0.05)^2 \times 3.05. P=8000P = 8000.
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  79. 79.
    Ammu and Balu walk from P to Q at a distance of 21 km at rates 3 and 4 km an hour respectively. Balu reaches Q and returns immediately and meets Ammu at R. The distance from P to R is
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    18 km
    Time taken by Balu to reach Q and return to R is same as Ammu to reach R. 21/4+(21−x)/4=x/321/4 + (21-x)/4 = x/3. Solving gives x=18x = 18.
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  80. 80.
    R takes twice as much time as m and thrice as much time as S to complete a job. If working together, they can complete the job in 4 days, then the time taken by R, m and S separately to complete the work are respectively
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: A —
    24 days, 12 days, 8 days
    Let R take 6x6x days. Then M takes 3x3x and S takes 2x2x. 16x+13x+12x=14\frac{1}{6x} + \frac{1}{3x} + \frac{1}{2x} = \frac{1}{4}. 1+2+36x=14⇒x=4\frac{1+2+3}{6x} = \frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow x=4. R=24, M=12, S=8.
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  81. 81.
    The observatory was built on ________ isolated plateau far from the city lights.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    an
    Use 'an' before a word starting with a vowel sound.
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  82. 82.
    Choose the correctly spelt word.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: C —
    accommodation
    The correct spelling is 'accommodation'.
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  83. 83.
    Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    Neither of the two explanations is entirely convincing.
    'Neither' is singular and takes a singular verb.
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  84. 84.
    The introduction of the new technology had a profound __________ on the way the photographs were processed.
    Show answer and explanation
    Answer: B —
    effect
    'Effect' is the noun form meaning result or influence.
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